MCQs on Indian Polity and Constitution – A Must Have in Your Arsenal for Competitive Exams

Updated December 22, 2022

Indian Polity MCQ questions featured on this page will give you a better glimpse of the broader topics and chapters. These questions are from the length and breadth of Indian Polity, and they will boost your basic understanding, which is very much required in the making through the Government Jobs. Also, the objective questions asked from Indian Polity can at times be intriguing, and you may not find it at ease to solve them. So, in its endevour to support your preparation for numerous competitive exams, the compilation of Indian Polity MCQ made by the team has put in hours of quality time in matching the standard. The team hopes the collection below comes in handy when you need it most.

1. Who among the following was the chairperson of the Provincial Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly?

[A] Jawaharlal Nehru

[B] Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

[C] Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

[D] J.B. Kripalani

Correct Answer: [Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel]

2. The Tenth Schedule of Indian Constitution was added via the:

[A] 24th Amendment Act

[B] 52nd Amendment Act

[C] 61st Amendment Act

[D] 85th Amendment Act

Correct Answer: [52nd Amendment Act]

3. Which of the following states is not included in the sixth schedule of Indian Constitution?

[A] Meghalaya

[B] Tripura

[C] Mizoram

[D] Manipur

Correct Answer: [Manipur]

4. With reference to the scheduled of the Indian constitution, which of the following is / are correct matches?

I. Second Schedule & Emoluments of President, Vice President etc.

II. Third Schedule & Allocation of Seats in Rajya Sabha

III. Fourth Schedule & Various forms of oaths by holders of constitutional office

Select the correct option from the codes given below:

[A] Only I & II

[B] Only II & III

[C] Only I

[D] I, II & III

Correct Answer: [Only I]

5. The Emergency Provisions of Indian Constitution have been borrowed from:

[A] Germany

[B] Japan

[C] USSR

[D] U.S.A

Correct Answer: [Germany]

6. Which of the following words is not included in the Preamble of the Constitution of India?

[A] Equality

[B] Liberty

[C] Dignity

[D] Justice

Correct Answer: [Dignity]

7. The Vice-President of India is:

[A] nominated by the President

[B] elected by the members of Rajya Sabha

[C] elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament

[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: [elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament]

8. Which of the following statements is not correct about the Rajya Sabha?

[A] Rajya Sabha is a permanent body

[B] It was duly constituted for the first time on April 3, 1952

[C] Twelve of Rajya Sabha members are nominated by the President

[D] One-third of its members retire every year

Correct Answer: [One-third of its members retire every year]

9. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

[A] Members of Lok Sabha are directly elected by the eligible voters

[B] Money Bills can only be introduced in Lok Sabha

[C] The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha

[D] President nominates four members of Anglo-Indian Community to Lok Sabha

Correct Answer: [President nominates four members of Anglo-Indian Community to Lok Sabha]

10. The Sarkaria commission is related to which of the following?

[A] Centre and State Relations

[B] Banking & Financial Sector

[C] Elections Reforms

[D] Freedom of Press in India

Correct Answer: [Centre and State Relations]

11. Which among the following authorities decides, how far the fundamental rights can apply to the members of the armed forces in India?

[A] President of India

[B] Parliament of India

[C] Arms Forces themselves

[D] Arms Forces Tribunal

Correct Answer: [Parliament of India]

12. In the constitution of India, the Freedom of speech and expression:

[A] Is enshrined in Part III

[B] Is absolute

[C] Can’t be curtailed by legislation

[D] Can be suspended in emergency

Correct Answer: [Can’t be curtailed by legislation]

13. Constitution of India guarantees which of the following to the states of India?

[A] Territorial Integrity

[B] Sovereignty

[C] Right to secede from Union

[D] None of them

Correct Answer: [None of them]

14. The annual reports of which of the following bodies is NOT caused to be laid before the Parliament by President of India?

[A] Finance Commission

[B] National Human Rights Commission

[C] Public Accounts Committee

[D] UPSC

Correct Answer: [National Human Rights Commission]

15. Knesset is the name of the parliament of which country?

[A] Israel

[B] Lebanon

[C] Tunisia

[D] Egypt

Correct Answer: [Israel]

16. With reference to United Nations, the decision that major countries should have veto power, was taken at which of the following conferences?

[A] Teheran conference

[B] Dumbarton oaks

[C] Yalta Conference

[D] Moscow Conference

Correct Answer: [Dumbarton oaks]

17. In which year, the Government of India had set up the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State relations?

[A] 1980

[B] 1983

[C] 1987

[D] 1992

Correct Answer: [1983]

18. In which year, Congress acted as an opposition party in Indian Parliament for the first time?

[A] 1975

[B] 1977

[C] 1981

[D] 1998

Correct Answer: [1977]

19. Which of the following commissions in the British era had made recommendations for a change in the pattern of dyarchy introduced under Government of India Act, 1919?

[A] Simon Commission

[B] Sapru Commission

[C] Butler Commission

[D] Muddiman Committee

Correct Answer: [Simon Commission]

20. As per plan of Sir Stafford Cripps, it envisaged that after the conclusion of World War-II:

[A] India should be granted complete independence

[B] India should be partitioned and granted independence

[C] India should be made a republic

[D] India should be given dominion status

Correct Answer: [India should be given dominion status]

21. Which Article of Indian Constitution incorporates the Common law doctrine of pleasure?

[A] Article 123

[B] Article 213

[C] Article 310

[D] Article 368

Correct Answer: [Article 310]

22. In which of the following circumstances, the prime minister of India cannot participate in voting on a No-confidence motion against his / her government?

[A] He / She leads a coalition government

[B] He / she has minority in Rajya Sabha

[C] He / she is a member of Rajya Sabha

[D] He / she is forbidden by speaker of Lok Sabha

Correct Answer: [He / she is a member of Rajya Sabha]

23. How many presidents of India so far were elected unopposed?

[A] One

[B] Two

[C] Three

[D] Four

Correct Answer: [Two]

24. The constitutional position of President of India is most closely similar to __:

[A] British Monarch

[B] US President

[C] Russian President

[D] British Prime Minister

Correct Answer: [British Monarch]

25. Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code is related to which among the following?

[A] Murder

[B] Culpable Homicide

[C] Death under Negligence

[D] Rape

Correct Answer: [Rape]

26. Who among the following was the Prime Minister of India when Mandal Commission was constituted?

[A] Indira Gandhi

[B] Morarji Desai

[C] Rajiv Gandhi

[D] V P Singh

Correct Answer: [Morarji Desai]

27. In which year state of Meghalaya came into existence?

[A] 1970

[B] 1971

[C] 1972

[D] 1973

Correct Answer: [1972]

28. Via which of the following amendments, the term & “Socialist” was inserted in Preamble of Indian constitution?

[A] 38th Amendment Act

[B] 42nd Amendment Act

[C] 49th Amendment Act

[D] 52nd Amendment Act

Correct Answer: [42nd Amendment Act]

29. Which among the following article of the Constitution of India says that all public places are open to all citizens?

[A] Article 15 (2)

[B] Article 16 (2)

[C] Article 17

[D] Article 18

Correct Answer: [Article 15 (2)]

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30. Which among the following constitutional amendment act, reduced the age of voting from 21 years to 18 years?

[A] 59th Amendment Act

[B] 60th Amendment Act

[C] 61st Amendment Act

[D] 62nd Amendment Act

Correct Answer: [61st Amendment Act]

31. For how long, A joint sitting of both the houses of Parliament may be convened to consider a bill which was passed by one house and pending in another house?

[A] 3 Months

[B] 6 Months

[C] 9 Months

[D] 12 Months

Correct Answer: [6 Months]

32. What is the maximum size & Minimum size of a Vidhan Sabha in Indian state, as outlined in the Constitution of India?

[A] 500,50

[B] 400,40

[C] 500,60

[D] 450,50

Correct Answer: [500,60]

33. Which among the following is the final authority to interpret the Constitution of India?

[A] President

[B] Supreme Court

[C] Council of Ministers

[D] Parliament

Correct Answer: [Supreme Court]

34. On the pattern of which among the following countries, the parliamentary system was established in India by the Constitution of India?

[A] United States

[B] England

[C] Australia

[D] Canada

Correct Answer: [England]

35. 73rd Amendment of the Constitution of India, is related to which among the following?

[A] Townships

[B] Panchayats

[C] Municipalities

[D] District Boards

Correct Answer: [Panchayats]

36. Which among the following is the constitutional body appointed by the president, every five years to review centre state financial relationships?

[A] Finance Commission

[B] Inter State Commission

[C] Inter State Council

[D] Zonal Council

Correct Answer: [Finance Commission]

37. What is the minimum age for a candidate to be elected as President of India?

[A] 20 years

[B] 25 years

[C] 30 years

[D] 35 years

Correct Answer: [35 years]

38. What can be the maximum number of members in a legislative assembly of a state in India?

[A] 400

[B] 500

[C] 450

[D] 550

Correct Answer: [500]

39. A no-confidence motion against the Union Government can be initiated in which among the following?

[A] Only Lok Sabha

[B] Only Rajya Sabha

[C] Either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha

[D] Only Lok Sabha with prior consent of President

Correct Answer [Only Lok Sabha]

40. “India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States”.

The above mandate has been enshrined in the Constitution of India, in which among the following?

[A] Preamble

[B] Article 1

[C] Article 2

[D] Schedule 1

Correct Answer: [Article 1]

41. In terms of Parliamentary terminology, what do we call a rule of legislative procedure under which a further debate on a motion can be stopped?

[A] Closure

[B] Gullitone

[C] Expunction

[D] Recess

Correct Answer: [Closure]

42. A bill cannot become an act of parliament, unless and until_____?

[A] It is passed by Lok Sabha

[B] It is passed by Rajya Sabha

[C] It gets assent from President

[D] It is passed by Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

Correct Answer: [It gets assent from President]

43. The minimum and maximum age for a candidate to contest elections for President of India’s office?

[A] 25 years, 65 years

[B] 35 years, 65 years

[C] 35 years, no limit

[D] 25 years, no limit

Correct Answer: [35 years, no limit]

44. The executive power of the state is vested in __?

[A] Chief Minister

[B] President

[C] Governor

[D] Council of Ministers in the state

Correct Answer: [Governor]

44. Which of the following is not a correct statement about UPSC?

[A] UPSC submits its annual report to the President

[B] UPSC Chairman can be removed by Central Government by order

[C] Composition of UPSC is determined by President

[D] All of the above are correct statements

Correct Answer: [UPSC Chairman can be removed by Central Government by order]

46. Which among the following are the three types of services envisaged in the Constitution of India?

[A] Navy Service, Air force Service and Army Service

[B] Civil Service, Military Service and Paramilitary Service

[C] All-India services, Central services and State services

[D] First Grade Service, Second Grade Service and Third Grade Services

Correct Answer: [All-India services, Central services and State services]

47. The 52nd amendment to the constitution of India is most closely related to __:

[A] Extension of Reservations in Government Jobs

[B] Provision for special status to Tripura

[C] Provisions for increasing age of eligibility for voting

[D] Provisions against political defections

Correct Answer: [Provisions against political defections]

48. In which among the following cases, the Supreme Court of India propounded the theory of basic structure of the Constitution?

[A] Gopalan vs. State of Madras

[B] Golak Nath

[C] Keshvanand Bharati Case

[D] Minerva Mills

Correct Answer: [Keshvanand Bharati Case]

49. The Part VI of constitution of India is not applicable to __:

[A] Arunachal Pradesh

[B] Jammu & Kashmir

[C] Sikkim

[D] Goa

Correct Answer: [Jammu & Kashmir]

50. Who among the following can remove the governor of a state from office?

[A] Legislative Assembly

[B] Parliament

[C] President

[D] Supreme Court

Correct Answer: [President]

51. For removal of a Governor from office, the President seeks advice from __:

[A] Council of Ministers

[B] Supreme Court

[C] Chief Minister of the concerned state

[D] None of them

Correct Answer: [None of them]

52. In context with the Constituent Assembly, which among the following observations is / are correct?

I. The members of Constituent Assembly were elected directly

II. The basis of seats allocation was population

III. Composition of the Constituent Assembly was roughly in line with the suggestions of the Cabinet Mission plan

Choose the correct option from the codes given below:

[A] Only I & II are correct

[B] Only II & III are correct

[C] Only I & III are correct

[D] I, II & III are correct

Correct Answer: [Only II & III are correct]

53. Which of the following was the primary objective of the Cripps Mission?

[A] To prevent the launch of Quit India Movement

[B] To persuade Indian Leaders to support the British War Efforts

[C] To Convince the Congress Ministries to withdraw their resignations

[D] To set up a Constitution making body

Correct Answer: [To persuade Indian Leaders to support the British War Efforts]

54. Who among the following was first woman judge of India?

[A] Leila Seth

[B] Anna Chandy

[C] Fathima Beevi

[D] Sujata Manohar

Correct Answer: [Fathima Beevi]

55. The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of the States are submitted to which among the following?

[A] The President

[B] The Governor

[C] The Parliament

[D] The Chief Minister

Correct Answer: [The Governor]

56. What is the minimum age prescribed by the Constitution of India for a candidate to be elected as Vice president of India?

[A] 18 years

[B] 25 years

[C] 30 years

[D] 35 years

Correct Answer: [35 years]

57. Supreme Court has made Right to Free Education as the part of which among the following rights?

[A] Right to life

[B] Right against Exploitation

[C] Right to freedom of speech and expression

[D] Cultural and Educational Rights

Correct Answer: [Right to life]

58. Who among the following appoints Attorney General of India?

[A] President

[B] Prime minister

[C] Law Ministry

[D] Cabinet Committee on Appointments

Correct Answer: [President]

59. Regarding chief secretary of a state, which of the following is / are correct statements?

I. He / She is selected from among the IAS officers

II. His / Her appointment is done by President of India

Select the correct option from the codes given below:

[A] Only I

[B] Only II

[C] Both I & II

[D] Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: [Only I]

60. Which of the following is not a function of the Chief Secretary of state?

[A] To exercise control over the whole Secretariat

[B] To advise the Chief Minister on all matters related to administration

[C] To act as a spokesman of the State Government

[D] To report to Union Home Minister regarding affairs of the state

Correct Answer: [To report to Union Home Minister regarding affairs of the state]

61. The accounts of which of the following are not audited by CAG?

[A] Municipal institutions

[B] State Governments

[C] Government Companies

[D] Central Government

Correct Answer: [Municipal institutions]

62. Which of the following is / are parts of Union Executive?

I. Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister

II. President of India

III. Central Secretariat

IV. Vice President

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

[A] Only 1

[B] Only 1 & 2

[C] Only 1, 2 & 3

[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4

Correct Answer: [Only 1 & 2]

63. Which among the following is the first state in India to make voting compulsory?

[A] Gujarat

[B] Maharastra

[C] Andhra Pradesh

[D] Tamil Nadu

Correct Answer: [Gujarat]

64. A Lok Sabha speaker addresses his/ her resignation to whom among the following?

[A] Deputy Speaker

[B] President

[C] Prime Minister

[D] Law Ministry

Correct Answer: [Deputy Speaker]

65. In which year first general election held in India?

[A] 1948

[B] 1949

[C] 1950

[D] 1951

Correct Answer: [1951]

66. The Mandal Commission was constituted during the tenure of which among the following prime ministers?

[A] Indira Gandhi

[B] Morarji Desai

[C] Rajiv Gandhi

[D] V P Singh

Correct Answer: [Morarji Desai]

67. In which year, First Public Service Commission was set up in India?

[A] 1922

[B] 1924

[C] 1926

[D] 1928

Correct Answer: [1926]

68. How many members can be nominated to Lok Sabha by President?

[A] 1

[B] 2

[C] 3

[D] 4

Correct Answer: [2]

69. Which among the following parts of constitution of India, includes the concept of welfare states?

[A] Preamble

[B] Fundamental rights

[C] Directive principles

[D] Fourth Schedule

Correct Answer: [Directive principles]

70. Under which of the following articles of constitution of India, president can impose presidential rule in a state?

[A] Article 352

[B] Article 360

[C] Article 355

[D] Article 356

Correct Answer: [Article 356]

71. What is the maximum duration of the interval between two sessions of parliament?

[A] 30 days

[B] 50 days

[C] 6 months

[D] 12 months

Correct Answer: [6 months]

72. Who among the following heads the Central government in India?

[A] Prime minister

[B] Chief Minister

[C] President

[D] Vice-President

Correct Answer: [Prime minister]

73. First Indian Prime Minister to resign from Office?

[A] Atal Bihari Vajpayee

[B] Morarji Desai

[C] H.D.Deve Gowda

[D] P.V.Narasimha Rao

Correct Answer: [Morarji Desai]

74. What is the number of Schedules in Constitution of India?

[A] 8

[B] 10

[C] 11

[D] 12

Correct Answer: [12]

75. In which year, The Citizenship Act passed?

[A] 1950

[B] 1955

[C] 1960

[D] 1965

Correct Answer: [1955]

76. Which among the following articles of Constitution of India abolishes the untouchablity?

[A] Article 15

[B] Article 16

[C] Article 17

[D] Article 18

Correct Answer: [Article 17]

77. Which among the following articles speaks about impeachment of the President of India?

[A] Article 60

[B] Article 61

[C] Article 62

[D] Article 63

Correct Answer: [Article 61]

78. Which among the following articles defines the Money Bill?

[A] Article 110

[B] Article 111

[C] Article 112

[D] Article 113

Correct Answer: [Article 110]

79. The Indian Constitution has adopted Parliamentary System of Constitution from which among the following countries?

[A] USA

[B] UK

[C] Japan

[D] France

Correct Answer: [UK]

80. The makers of Constitution of India chose the scheme of federation of India, as prevalent in which among the following countries?

[A] United states

[B] United kingdom

[C] Australia

[D] Canada

Correct Answer: [United kingdom]

81. Which among the following amendments added the Fundamental Duties as per recommendations of Sardar Swaran Singh Committee?

[A] 38th

[B] 40th

[C] 42nd

[D] 44th

Correct Answer: [42nd]

82. How many freedoms are guaranteed by Article 19 (Right to Freedom)?

[A] 3

[B] 4

[C] 5

[D] 6

Correct Answer: [6]

83. In which among the following parts of Constitution of India are enshrined the Fundamental Duties?

[A] Part III

[B] Part IIIA

[C] Part IVA

[D] Part IV

Correct Answer: [Part IVA]

84. Which among the following has the power to legislate on the matters which are neither in the Union List, nor in the State list nor in the Concurrent list of the Constitution of India?

[A] Parliament

[B] State Legislatures

[C] Both State legislatures and Parliament

[D] Neither Parliament nor State legislature

Correct Answer: [Parliament]

85. When was Indian Calendar adopted officially?

[A] 1954

[B] 1955

[C] 1956

[D] 1957

Correct Answer: [1957]

86. How many types of emergencies are there in Constitution of India?

[A] 1

[B] 2

[C] 3

[D] 4

Correct Answer: [3]

87. The law created by a legislature is called?

[A] Money Bill

[B] Legislation or statutory law

[C] Budget

[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: [Legislation or statutory law]

88. How many members of Rajya Sabha are nominated by President of India?

[A] 2

[B] 10

[C] 12

[D] 15

Correct Answer: [12]

89. The Supreme Court of India tenders legal advice to president of India when___?

[A] Cabinet recommends it

[B] Council of Minister recommends it

[C] President needs it

[D] Supreme Court wants to tender the advice

Correct Answer: [President needs it]

90. The decisions of District court is subject to the _________ of the High court.

Choose the correct phrase to fill the blank.

[A] Advisory Jurisdiction

[B] Appellate Jurisdiction

[C] Original jurisdiction

[D] Judicial Review

Correct Answer: [Appellate Jurisdiction]

91. On which date, National Panchayati Raj Day is observed?

[A] January 28

[B] February 26

[C] March 11

[D] April 24

Correct Answer: [April 24]

92. According to Indian Constitution, the vacancy in the office of the President of India shall be filled with in?

[A] 1 month

[B] 3 months

[C] 6 months

[D] 1 year

Correct Answer: [6 months]

93. Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India acts as the chief accountant and auditor for the?

[A] Union govt only

[B] State govt

[C] Union govt & state govt

[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: [Union govt & state govt]

94. For which among the following periods, an Attorney General is appointed in India?

[A] 2 years

[B] 3 years

[C] 4 years

[D] Any period which the president feels suitable

Correct Answer: [Any period which the president feels suitable]

95. The Promulgation of an ordinance by a President is done when ___?

[A] President feels that ordinance should be promulgated (on discretion)

[B] When Supreme Court advises the President

[C] When Council of Ministers advises President

[D] When any house of the parliament passes a resolution

Correct Answer: [When Council of Ministers advises President]

96. Which among the following were inserted in the constitution of India on recommendations of Swaran Singh Committee?

[A] Fundamental Rights

[B] Directive Principles of State Policy

[C] Fundamental Duties

[D] 12th Schedule

Correct Answer: [Fundamental Duties]

97. What is the maximum life of an ordinance promulgated by President of India?

[A] 6 months

[B] 7.5 months

[C] 8 months

[D] 10 months

Correct Answer: [7.5 months]

98. The Town Planning Committee comes under which among the following parts of Constitution of India?

[A] Part VII

[B] Part IX

[C] Part IXA

[D] None of them

Correct Answer: [Part IXA]

99. Who appoints” ad hoc” Judges of the Supreme Court?

[A] President

[B] Vice President

[C] President with advice of Council of Ministers

[D] Chief Justice of the Supreme Court with permission of President

Correct Answer: [Chief Justice of the Supreme Court with permission of President]

100. Which among the following is the correct age of retirement of Judge of Supreme Court?

[A] 58 years

[B] 60 years

[C] 62 years

[D] 65 years

Correct Answer: [65 years]

101. What can be the maximum number of members of the Lok Sabha?

[A] 545

[B] 550

[C] 552

[D] 560

Correct Answer: [552]

102. If President and Vice President, both are unavailable, who among the following would discharge the functions?

[A] Prime Minister

[B] Lok Sabha Speaker

[C] Chief Justice of India

[D] Any person nominated by President or Vice President

Correct Answer: [Chief Justice of India]

103. Till now, the Preamble of Constitution of India has been amended for how many times?

[A] Never

[B] Once

[C] Twice

[D] Thrice

Correct Answer: [Once]

104. Which among the following schedules of Constitution of India talks about the allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha?

[A] 3rd

[B] 4th

[C] 5th

[D] 6th

Correct Answer: [4th]

105. In which year Rajya Sabha was established?

[A] 1950

[B] 1952

[C] 1953

[D] 1954

Correct Answer: [1952]

106. Each House of Parliament collectively and the Members individually, enjoy certain special powers and privileges without which they cannot discharge their functions, efficiently and effectively. These privileges have been provided by ___?

[A] Constitution of India

[B] Act of Parliament

[C] Rule book of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

[D] President of India

Correct Answer: [Constitution of India]

107. A bill initiated by which among the following is a Government Bill?

[A] Member of Parliament from Ruling Party / Coalition

[B] Minister

[C] Member of parliament from opposition party

[D] Either 1 or 2

Correct Answer: [Minister]

108. How many members can be nominated by the president to the Rajya Sabha & Lok Sabha Respectively?

[A] 12 & 2

[B] 10 & 2

[C] 12 & 4

[D] 12 & 6

Correct Answer: [12 & 2]

109. Which among the following language is NOT there in the 8th Schedule of Constitution of India?

[A] Dogri

[B] Rajasthani

[C] Sindhi

[D] Manipuri

Correct Answer: [Rajasthani]

110. Till now how many judges of Supreme Court of India have been removed from Office through impeachment?

[A] 1

[B] 2

[C] 3

[D] none

Correct Answer: [none]

111. Transactions relate to debt other than those included in the Consolidated Fund of India are kept in which among the following?

[A] Debt Account

[B] Public Account

[C] Contingency Fund

[D] Debt Fund

Correct Answer: [Public Account]

112. Approval of which among the following authorities alone would be sufficient to draw funds from Consolidated Fund of India?

[A] Only Parliament

[B] Only President

[C] Either Parliament or President

[D] Both Parliament and President

Correct Answer: [Only Parliament]

113. All revenues received by the Government of India by taxes e.g. Income Tax, Central Excise, Customs and other receipts are kept in which among the following?

[A] Consolidated Fund of India

[B] Contingency Fund of India

[C] Public Account of India

[D] Reserve Bank of India

Correct Answer: [Consolidated Fund of India]

114. Which among the following don’t come under the purview of Right to Education?

[A] Government Schools

[B] Private Schools

[C] Madrasas

[D] Government schools funded by Private Funds

Correct Answer: [Madrasas]

115. Who among the following is the Supreme Commander of Indian armed forces?

[A] President of India

[B] Vice President of India

[C] Prime Minister of India

[D] Defense Minister of India

Correct Answer: [President of India]

116. A Rajya Sabha member is elected for a term which extends _____?

[A] 3 years

[B] 4 years

[C] 5 years

[D] 6 years

Correct Answer: [6 years]

117. An Individual Minister can be removed by ______?

[A] Prime Minister

[B] Council of Ministers

[C] Parliament

[D] President

Correct Answer: [President]

118. The right to constitutional remedies allows Indian citizens to stand up for their rights against anybody even the government of India. Which article says this?

[A] Article 31

[B] Article 32

[C] Article 33

[D] Article 34

Correct Answer: [Article 32]

119. By which among the following Dyarchy was introduced in India?

[A] Act of 1892

[B] Act of 1909

[C] Act of 1919

[D] Act of 1935

Correct Answer: [Act of 1919]

120. Initially, for how long presidential rule can be imposed in a state?

[A] 6 months

[B] 9 months

[C] 12 months

[D] 15 months

Correct Answer: [6 months]

121. Which among the following was the strength of Lok Sabha after India’s first general elections?

[A] 289

[B] 389

[C] 489

[D] 500

Correct Answer: [489]

122. For how many times, a person can become President of India?

[A] Once

[B] Twice

[C] Thrice

[D] No limit

Correct Answer: [No limit]

123. If the Government of a State fails to enforce the Directive principals of the state Policy, a citizen can move to which among the following courts to file a writ petition to get them enforced?

[A] No Court

[B] District Courts

[C] High Courts

[D] Supreme Court

Correct Answer: [No Court]

124. Which among the following articles helped the Madarsas in India to remain out of purview of the Right to Education Act?

[A] Article 26

[B] Article 27

[C] Article 28

[D] Article 30

Correct Answer: [Article 30]

125. The ultimate sovereignty in the Indian Polity rests with which among the following?

[A] Parliament

[B] Council of Ministers

[C] Higher Judiciary

[D] People of India

Correct Answer: [People of India]

126. Which among the following is the basis of representation in Rajya Sabha for States?

[A] Area

[B] Population

[C] Both A & B

[D] Neither A nor B

Correct Answer: [Population]

127. New All India services can be initiated in India only if the following makes a recommendation?

[A] President

[B] Rajya sabha

[C] Lok sabha

[D] Council of ministers

Correct Answer: [Rajya sabha]

128. What is the maximum life of an ordinance promulgated by President?

[A] 6 months

[B] 7.5 months

[C] 12 months

[D] 15 months

Correct Answer: [7.5 months]

129. In which five-year plan, the Panchayati Raj System was introduced in India for the first time?

[A] 1st

[B] 2nd

[C] 5th

[D] 6th

Correct Answer: [2nd]

130. The chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts is nominated by which among the following?

[A] President

[B] Lok Sabha Speaker

[C] Lok Sabha Secretary

[D] Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs

Correct Answer: [Lok Sabha Speaker]

131. Which among the following judges is known for having pioneered the PIL or Public Interest Litigation?

[A] Justice R N Mishra

[B] Justice PN Bhagwati

[C] Justice Venkatswami

[D] Justice Mirza Hameedullah Beg

Correct Answer: [Justice PN Bhagwati]

132. Which among the following amendments of Constitution of India had accorded precedence to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights?

[A] 25th

[B] 42nd

[C] 59th

[D] 44th

Correct Answer: [42nd]

133. The “liberty, equality and fraternity” enshrined by Preamble is inspired by which revolution?

[A] Russian

[B] French

[C] Irish

[D] American

Correct Answer: [French]

134. “Right to vote” can be placed in which among the following categories?

[A] Fundamental Right

[B] Constitutional Right

[C] Fundamental Duty

[D] Legal Obligation

Correct Answer: [Constitutional Right]

135. First session of Loksabha was held in which among the following years?

[A] 1950

[B] 1951

[C] 1952

[D] 1953

Correct Answer: [1952]

136. President can proclaim a state of Financial emergency under which among the following articles?

[A] Article 350

[B] Article 352

[C] Article 356

[D] Article 360

Correct Answer: [Article 360]

137. Which among the following is the official language of Union Territory of Lakshadweep?

[A] Tamil

[B] Malayalam

[C] Great Andamanese

[D] English

Correct Answer: [Malayalam]

138. Which schedule of Indian constitution contains languages?

[A] 6th

[B] 7th

[C] 8th

[D] 9th

Correct Answer: [8th]

139. Sikkim became a new state in the Union by the __________Amendment act.

[A] 32nd, 1974

[B] 35th, 1975

[C] 36th, 1975

[D] 37th, 1978

Correct Answer: [36th, 1975]

140. Sindhi Language was included in the list of official languages in the 8th schedule of our constitution in which year?

[A] 1957

[B] 1967

[C] 1969

[D] 1968

Correct Answer: [1967]

141. India is a secular state and it is explicitly proclaimed in the___?

[A] Preamble

[B] Fundamental rights

[C] DPSP

[D] Schedules

Correct Answer: [Preamble]

142. The age for retirement of judges from supreme courts and high courts are respectively?

[A] 65 & 62

[B] 65 & 60

[C] 65 for both

[D] 65 & 63

Correct Answer: [65 & 62]

143. The amendment of the constitution can be initiated in which of the following?

[A] Loksabha only

[B] Rajyasabha only

[C] Any House of the Parliament

[D] Assembly of a state

Correct Answer: [Any House of the Parliament]

144. An appeal can be made in the Supreme Court of India in __________?

[A] Civil & Criminal Matters

[B] Criminal & Constitutional Matters

[C] Civil, Criminal & Constitutional Matters

[D] Constitutional and Criminal Matters

Correct Answer: [Civil, Criminal & Constitutional Matters]

145. What is the minimum years of age for candidate for office of the vice president?

[A] 25

[B] 30

[C] 35

[D] 38

Correct Answer: [35]

146. Who appoints Chairman of UPSC?

[A] president

[B] Vice president

[C] Parliament

[D] Cabinet Committee on Appointments

Correct Answer: [president]

147. Whom does UPSC submits it annual report?

[A] Parliament

[B] Presidnent

[C] Home minister

[D] Prime minister

Correct Answer: [Presidnent]

148. Which among the following authorities can remove the UPSC chairman?

[A] President

[B] Supreme court

[C] Prime minister

[D] Both A & B

Correct Answer: [President]

149. Who is the chief executive head of the state?

[A] Chief minister

[B] Governor

[C] President

[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: [Governor]

150. Who can remove a chief justice of Supreme Court?

[A] Parliament by resolution

[B] Judges of supreme court by Majority

[C] President on a resolution by parliament

[D] President on his/ her own discretion

Correct Answer: [President on a resolution by parliament]

151. Who determines the composition of UPSC?

[A] President

[B] Constitution

[C] Chairman of UPSC

[D] Council of ministers

Correct Answer: [President]

152. What is the correct chronological order of creation of Assam, Nagaland, Goa & Mizoram?

[A] Assam, Nagaland, Goa, Mizoram

[B] Assam, Mizoram, Nagaland, Goa

[C] Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, Goa

[D] Assam, Goa, Mizoram, Nagaland

Correct Answer: [Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, Goa]

153. Who among the following headed the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas a committee under the Constituent Assembly?

[A] Jawahar Lal Nehru

[B] Vallabh Bhai Patel

[C] H C Mukherjee

[D] Maulana Azad

Correct Answer: [Vallabh Bhai Patel]

154. What was the original requirement of” Magna carta”?

[A] To bring the powers of King under law

[B] To make the power of the kings beyond Law

[C] To limit the power of Barons

[D] None of them

Correct Answer: [To bring the powers of King under law]

155. Goa was declared as India’s 25th state in which among the following years?

[A] 1987

[B] 1988

[C] 1989

[D] 1990

Correct Answer: [1987]

156. “Riksdag” is the name of parliament of which of the following?

[A] Iran

[B] Norway

[C] Sweden

[D] Kazakhstan

Correct Answer: [Sweden]

157. In which year Dogri language was included in the eighth Schedule of Indian Constitution?

[A] 2001

[B] 2002

[C] 2003

[D] 2004

Correct Answer: [2003]

158. Which among the following can be called a” writ of prohibition”?

[A] A writ issued by Supreme court or High court to inferior court

[B] A writ issued by High Court to supreme court or inferior court

[C] A writ issued by an inferior court

[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: [A writ issued by Supreme court or High court to inferior court]

159. “National Integration Council” was created for making welfare measures for the____?

[A] Muslims & Sikhs

[B] Sikhs, Buddhists & Schedules castes

[C] All Minorities

[D] All religions

Correct Answer: [All Minorities]

160. Who among the following is called the” guardian of the public purse” of India?

[A] RBI Governor

[B] CAG

[C] Supreme court

[D] Union Finance minister

Correct Answer: [CAG]

161. Which among the following articles of Indian Constitution gives right to the Attorney General of India to speak in Houses of Parliament or their committee?

[A] Article 76

[B] Article 86

[C] Article 96

[D] Article 106

Correct Answer: [Article 76]

162. In which year, first Official Language Commission was constituted?

[A] 1952

[B] 1955

[C] 1958

[D] 1959

Correct Answer: [1955]

163. The system of” Proportional Representation” is used in India to elect?

[A] Prime minister

[B] Governor

[C] President

[D] Members of Parliament

Correct Answer: [President]

164. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution divides the legislative powers between the Union and states?

[A] 6th schedule

[B] 7th schedule

[C] 8th schedule

[D] 9th schedule

Correct Answer: [7th schedule]

165. Which of the following posts is not mentioned in Constitution?

[A] Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha

[B] Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha

[C] Attorney General

[D] Solicitor General

Correct Answer: [Solicitor General]

166. Which among the following is the correct designation of Hindi in India?

[A] National language

[B] Language of communication between states & centre

[C] The Official Language of the Union of India

[D] Official and National Language of India

Correct Answer: [The Official Language of the Union of India]

167. Which among the following state / union territory got birth with the Punjab Reorganization Act of 1966?

[A] Haryana

[B] Hiamchal Pradesh

[C] Chandigarh

[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: [Haryana]

168. Which among the following constitution is similar to Indian Constitution because of a strong centre?

[A] USA

[B] Canada

[C] England

[D] Japan

Correct Answer: [Canada]

169. Town Planning Committees are constituted as per which among the following amendments of Indian Constitution?

[A] 73rd

[B] 74th

[C] 75th

[D] 76th

Correct Answer: [74th]

170. What can be the maximum number of members of Rajya Sabha?

[A] 245

[B] 250

[C] 255

[D] 260

Correct Answer: [250]

171. Which among the following articles gives the power to the central government to take pre-emptive action to protect any state against external aggression & internal disturbances?

[A] Article 355

[B] Article 356

[C] Article 358

[D] Article 360

Correct Answer: [Article 355]

172. Who among the following is the final interpreter & guardian of Indian Constitution?

[A] President

[B] Prime Minister

[C] Supreme Court

[D] Supreme Court as well as High Court

Correct Answer: [Supreme Court]

173. The Vice President is elected by an electoral college comprising votes of __________?

[A] Only members of Parliament

[B] Members of Parliament & members of Legislative Assemblies

[C] Members of Parliament, Members of Legislative assemblies and Members of legislative councils

[D] Members of Rajya Sabha only

Correct Answer: [Only members of Parliament]

174. A minister in Union Government is individually responsible to ___?

[A] Council of Ministers

[B] Prime Minister

[C] President

[D] Parliament

Correct Answer: [President]

175. What fraction of Rajya Sabha members retire after every two years?

[A] 2/3

[B] 1/3

[C] 1/2

[D] 1/6

Correct Answer: [1/3]

176. Which article ensures the special status to Jammu & Kashmir?

[A] Article 370

[B] Article 372

[C] Article 375

[D] Article 378

Correct Answer: [Article 370]

177. The Three tier system of panchayti raj was adopted by which state for the first time?

[A] Rajasthan

[B] Andhra Pradesh

[C] Bihar

[D] Karnataka

Correct Answer: [Rajasthan]

178. The preamble of Constitution of India is ________?

[A] A part of constitution

[B] Not a part of constitution

[C] is an annexure to constitution

[D] A schedule of the Constitution

Correct Answer: [A part of constitution]

179. Right to property was made a Legal right from a Fundamental Right by which among the following amendments to Indian Constitution?

[A] 42nd

[B] 44th

[C] 46th

[D] 48th

Correct Answer: [44th]

180. A Governor of a state can be dismissed from his office by __________?

[A] State Legislative Assembly

[B] Parliament

[C] President

[D] Council of ministers

Correct Answer: [President]

181. Part VI of our constitution is applicable to all the states except __________?

[A] Arunachal Pradesh

[B] Jammu & Kashmir

[C] Sikkim

[D] Assam

Correct Answer: [Jammu & Kashmir]

182. In which year, Union Territories were introduced in India?

[A] 1949

[B] 1950

[C] 1956

[D] 1960

Correct Answer: [1956]

183. Which among the following amendments of the constitution of India fully secured the constitutional validity of zamindari abolition laws?

[A] 1st

[B] 2nd

[C] 3rd

[D] 4th

Correct Answer: [1st]

184. The Official Languages Act 1963 provided that _______?

[A] Hindi is only official language of India

[B] Use of English to be continued in addition to Hindi for Official Purpose

[C] Special status to English

[D] All the above

Correct Answer: [Use of English to be continued in addition to Hindi for Official Purpose]

185. In which among the following years, the Constitution of India was amended for the first time?

[A] 1950

[B] 1951

[C] 1952

[D] 1953

Correct Answer: [1951]

186. Who among the following was the first president of Constituent Assembly of India?

[A] Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

[B] Dr. Rajendra Prasad

[C] Professor Harendra Coomar Mookerjee

[D] Dr. B R Ambedkar

Correct Answer: [Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha]

187. By which among the following ways, the Constitution Assembly generally arrived at decisions on various provisions of the Constitution?

[A] Simple Majority

[B] Two Third Majority

[C] Consensus

[D] Casting Vote

Correct Answer: [Consensus]

188. On which date Indian Constitution was finally signed by the members of the constituent assembly?

[A] November 26, 1949

[B] January 24, 1950

[C] January 26, 1950

[D] January 24, 1949

Correct Answer: [January 24, 1950]

189. Who among the following was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly?

[A] Sachidanand Sinha

[B] B N Rao

[C] H N Kunzuru

[D] V N Menon

Correct Answer: [B N Rao]

190. Which of the following provisions of the constitution did not come into force on November 26, 1949?

[A] Provisions relating to citizenship

[B] Provisions relating to elections

[C] Fundamental rights

[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: [Fundamental rights]

191. Which among the following feature of Constitution of India is derived from Weimer Constitution (of Germany)?

[A] Due Procedure of Law

[B] Procedure Established by Law

[C] Suspension of fundamental rights during emergency

[D] Right to Property as Legal right

Correct Answer: [Suspension of fundamental rights during emergency]

192. The constitution of India derives its ultimate authority from ____?

[A] Supreme Court of India

[B] Parliament of India

[C] People of India

[D] Constituent Assembly of India

Correct Answer: [People of India]

193. The dual government introduced by Pitts India Act continued to operate in India, until it was abolished by which of the following laws?

[A] Government of India Act 1858

[B] Charter Act 1853

[C] Indian Councils Act 1861

[D] Indian Councils Act 1909

Correct Answer: [Government of India Act 1858]

194. By which among the following acts, the East India Company lost its monopoly of trade with China?

[A] Pitts India act 1784

[B] The Charter Act of 1813

[C] The Charter Act of 1833

[D] The Charter Act of 1853

Correct Answer: [The Charter Act of 1833]

195. The East India Company was deprived of monopoly of trade with India except Tea Trade by which among the following acts?

[A] The Charter Act of 1813

[B] The Charter Act of 1833

[C] The Charter Act of 1853

[D] Government of India Act 1858

Correct Answer: [The Charter Act of 1813]

196. Which of the following acts created Supreme Court of Judicature at Fort William?

[A] The Regulating Act 1773

[B] Indian Councils Act 1861

[C] Dundas Bill of 1783

[D] Charter Act of 1833

Correct Answer: [The Regulating Act 1773]

197. Which among the following was the first attempt to regulate the affairs of English East India Company in India?

[A] Pitts India Act 1784

[B] Charter Act 1833

[C] The Regulating Act 1773

[D] Charter Act of 1813

Correct Answer: [The Regulating Act 1773]

198. Pyithu Hluttaw is the lower house of the parliament of which among the following countries?

[A] Myanmmar

[B] Thailand

[C] Cambodia

[D] Vietnam

Correct Answer: [Myanmmar]

199. What is the upper limit of election expense in a parliamentary constituency?

[A] 10 lakhs

[B] 25 lakhs

[C] 70 lakhs

[D] 1 crore

Correct Answer: [70 lakhs]

200. The Parliament of India is consisted of _______:

[A] Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha

[B] Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha & President

[C] Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, President & Prime Minister

[D] Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & Council of Ministers

Correct Answer: [Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha & President]

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